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Post-NGN questions with verified answers and rationales. This is the core drill.

Which of the following correctly describes the law of segregation?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aIt states that allele pairs segregate during gametogenesis and reunite randomly during the fertilization process.Correct
  • bIt states that the segregation of the dominant trait in the phenotype happens in the hybrid offspring.
  • cIt states that the hereditary factors segregate independently of one another during gametogenesis.
  • dIt states that all the genetic factors are present in the DNA.
Rationale

It states that allele pairs segregate during gametogenesis and reunite randomly during the fertilization process. The law of segregation states that each pair of alleles segregate randomly during gametogenesis (gamete formation). This means that each gamete (sex cell) receives one copy of a gene (an allele). They later reunite or combine randomly during fertilization. This way, the offspring acquires one allele from each of the parents. It states that the segregation of the dominant trait in the phenotype happens in the hybrid offspring: This incorrectly focuses on dominance and phenotype, whereas the law of segregation pertains to the separation of alleles during gamete formation. It states that all the genetic factors are present in the DNA: While true, this describes a general fact about genetics, not Mendel’s law of segregation. It states that the hereditary factors segregate independently of one another during gametogenesis: This describes Mendel’s law of independent assortment, which applies to genes on different chromosomes, not the law of segregation.

Source recency: 2026

The genotypes of the parents in the Punnett square below can be described as __________.

Accuracy reviewed
  • aHeterozygous dominant and homozygous dominantCorrect
  • bHeterozygous recessive and heterozygous dominant
  • cHeterozygous recessive and homozygous recessive
  • dHomozygous dominant and homozygous recessive
Rationale

Heterozygous dominant and homozygous dominant The parents’ genotypes are heterozygous dominant (Rr) and homozygous dominant (RR). We can see this by going across the top (Rr) and down the side (RR). that heterozygous means the offspring has a combination of different alleles, whereas homozygous means that they only have copies of the same exact allele. The genotype contains all dominant alleles. Homozygous dominant (RR) and heterozygous dominant (Rr) suppress the activity of the r allele. Therefore, none of the possible genetic combinations would result in a recessive pairing. There are no homozygous recessive alleles in both parents. One of the parents shows the presence of homozygous dominant alleles but the other one does not contain homozygous recessive alleles. This means that each possible cross will always contain at least one dominant allele, so the dominant trait will be expressed in all of the offspring.

Source recency: 2026

Which of these is a function of a ribosome?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aRibosomes carry the codons required for protein synthesis.
  • bRibosomes can decode mRNA and assemble amino acids for protein synthesis.Correct
  • cRibosomes move along the length of the amino acid chain to introduce peptide bonds in between them.
  • dRibosomes transfer mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
Rationale

Ribosomes can decode mRNA and assemble amino acids for protein synthesis Ribosomal units can decode the codons on mRNA and assemble amino acids with the help of tRNA for translation. Codons are contained within the mRNA strand, not on or inside the ribosomes. Ribosomes do not move along the length of an amino acid chain, they create one. They move along the mRNA strand to decode it, which then directs the formation of the complementary amino acid chain. The transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm does not occur with the help of tRNA.

Source recency: 2026

The number of protons is the same as?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aThe angular momentum
  • bNumber of isotopes for the element
  • cThe atomic numberCorrect
  • dThe nuclear force
Rationale

The atomic number The number of protons in the nucleus is the defining property of an element, and is referred to as the atomic number. The angular momentum refers to the momentum of a particle as it moves in a circular or orbital path. It’s related to the behavior of electrons, not protons. The number of protons in the nucleus doesn’t directly determine angular momentum. The number of possible isotopes is not connected to the number of protons in an atom. All atoms of a given element are not necessarily identical. For example, elements may have isotopes, which are atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons. The nuclear force is a force that acts between the protons and neutrons of atoms.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following statements is true about protons?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aThey have a negative charge.
  • bThey have more mass than a neutron.
  • cSome atoms have no protons.
  • dThe number of protons in the nucleus is the defining property of an element.Correct
Rationale

The number of protons in the nucleus is the defining property of an element. A proton is a subatomic particle that has a charge of +1. Every atom has at least one proton in its nucleus. The number of protons in the nucleus is the defining property of an element and is referred to as the element’s atomic number. For example, any atom with one proton must be hydrogen; any atom with six protons must be carbon. All other statements are false regarding protons.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following prefixes would likely be the most appropriate for measuring the weight of a 2,500 g kitten?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aGiga
  • bKiloCorrect
  • cNano
  • dPico
Rationale

Kilo Kilo- is a prefix in the metric system that means 1,000. Since the kitten weighs 2,500 grams, this can be expressed as 2.5 kilograms (kg) using the kilo prefix. Giga- means 1 billion (10⁹). Using this prefix for 2,500 grams would result in a value like 0.0000025 gigagrams, which is impractical for this scale. Nano- means 1 billionth (10⁻⁹). Expressing the kitten’s weight in nanograms would result in an enormous and impractical number: 2.5 × 10¹² nanograms. Pico- means 1 trillionth (10⁻¹²). Using pico would lead to an even more unwieldy number: 2.5 × 10¹⁵ picograms.

Source recency: 2026

Which of these bonds would we see between nitrogenous bases?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aIonic bonds
  • bSulphide bonds
  • cHydrogen bondsCorrect
  • dPolar bonds
Rationale

Hydrogen bonds Hydrogen bonds are the type of bonds that occur between nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA. These weak interactions are crucial for stabilizing the double-helix structure of DNA. Between nitrogenous bases, hydrogen bonds are seen since this bond is easy to break, which is needed during the processes of replication and transcription. Ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons and the attraction between oppositely charged ions. Nitrogenous bases do not form ionic bonds with each other. Sulphide bonds (or disulfide bonds) occur between sulfur atoms in cysteine residues of proteins, not between nitrogenous bases. Polar bonds: while individual nitrogenous bases have polar functional groups, the bonds between complementary base pairs are specifically hydrogen bonds. 'Polar bond' refers to intramolecular covalent bonds with unequal electron sharing, not the intermolecular hydrogen bonds that hold base pairs together. Nitrogenous bases do contain polar functional groups (such as N-H and C=O), but the bonds between complementary bases in DNA are specifically hydrogen bonds, not generic polar covalent bonds.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the link between chromosomes and DNA?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aChromosomes include numerous genes, each of which is made up of a DNA sequence.Correct
  • bChromosomes are the building blocks of DNA.
  • cThe DNA sequence is made up of chromosomes, which include numerous genes.
  • dGenes contain chromosomes that are made up of DNA.
Rationale

Chromosomes include numerous genes, each of which is made up of a DNA sequence. Chromosomes carry genetic information in the form of DNA. Each gene is formed of sequences of DNA and carries information for characteristics of organisms. Chromosomes are the building blocks of DNA. This is incorrect, because it is the other way around: DNA is the fundamental molecule that makes up chromosomes, not the other way. Genes contain chromosomes that are made up of DNA. This is incorrect, because genes are segments of DNA located on chromosomes. Genes do not contain chromosomes. The DNA sequence is made up of chromosomes, which include numerous genes. This is incorrect, because chromosomes themselves are made up of DNA, not the other way around. DNA sequences are found within chromosomes.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following hormones is not increased in response to dehydration?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aAntidiuretic hormone
  • bErythropoietinCorrect
  • cAldosterone
  • dRenin
Rationale

Erythropoietin During dehydration, secretions of antidiuretic hormone, renin, and aldosterone are increased in order to prevent further loss of water in the urine. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney in response to low levels of oxygen (hypoxia) in order to stimulate production of red blood cells.

Source recency: 2026

In which segment of the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aLoop of henle
  • bDistal convoluted tubule
  • cProximal convoluted tubuleCorrect
  • dCollecting duct
Rationale

Proximal convoluted tubule Glucose is reabsorbed primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of the nephron. The cells of the PCT have transport proteins that actively reabsorb glucose from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, under normal conditions, ensuring that glucose is not lost in the urine. Distal convoluted tubule: Involved in further reabsorption of ions, water, and regulation of pH but not glucose. Loop of Henle: Primarily responsible for the reabsorption of water and salts. Collecting duct: Involved in water reabsorption, especially under the influence of ADH, but not glucose reabsorption.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following is a hypothesis?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aWhen I added fertilizer to my plants, they grew more quickly.
  • bOne liter of water was added to a reaction.
  • cFive different breeds of dogs are at the dog park.
  • dIf a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score.Correct
Rationale

If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score. A hypothesis is a testable prediction or statement about the relationship between variables in an experiment. It typically follows an “If… then…” structure, where the “If” part refers to the cause or independent variable, and the “then” part refers to the effect or dependent variable. In this case, the hypothesis is making a specific prediction: if a student gets more sleep, then their test score will improve. This statement can be tested through experimentation, where the amount of sleep is controlled and test scores are measured. Five different breeds of dogs are at the dog park: This is an observation, not a hypothesis. It is a factual statement and does not propose a testable relationship between variables. When I added fertilizer to my plants, they grew more quickly: This is an observation of an experiment or event that happened, but it is not a hypothesis. It does not predict the outcome or establish a cause-effect relationship. It would be more of a conclusion derived from testing a hypothesis. One liter of water was added to a reaction: This is a factual statement about the procedure or an observation, not a testable hypothesis. A hypothesis would predict the outcome of adding water to the reaction, such as how it might affect the rate of the reaction.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following descriptions is correct?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aSolid: no constant volume and no constant shape
  • bGas: constant volume and a definite shape
  • cGas: no definite volume and no definite shapeCorrect
  • dLiquid: no definite volume and constant shape
Rationale

Gas: no definite volume and no definite shape A gas is a substance with no definite volume and no definite shape. Solids and liquids have volumes that do not change easily. A solid has a definite shape and volume. There are two kinds of solids, crystalline and amorphous. Liquids can occupy whatever shape their container has, so they do not have a fixed shape. Because the particles in liquids are very close together (barely further apart than in solids) liquids do not easily compress, so their volume is fixed.

Source recency: 2026

Using the provided image, choose the anatomical structure designated by letter B.

Accuracy reviewed
  • aRight ventricle
  • bRight atrium
  • cLeft ventricle
  • dLeft atriumCorrect
Rationale

Left atrium Use the diagram of the heart below as a visual reference for all of its structures. Need help finding the left vs. right atrium? Here are some tips when looking at a diagram of a heart: Orientation: The left atrium is on the right side of the diagram, and the right atrium is on the left. Blood Flow: The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body (via vena cava), while the left atrium gets oxygenated blood from the lungs (via pulmonary veins). Vessels: The right atrium is near the vena cava, and the left atrium is near the pulmonary veins.

Source recency: 2026

Balance the following chemical equation: CH4 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl

Accuracy reviewed
  • a2 CH<sub>4</sub> + Cl<sub>2</sub> → 2 CCl<sub>4</sub> + HCl
  • bCH<sub>4</sub> + Cl<sub>2</sub> → CCl<sub>4</sub> + HCl
  • c2 CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 Cl<sub>2</sub> → 2 CCl<sub>4</sub> + 2 HCl
  • dCH<sub>4</sub> + 4 Cl<sub>2</sub> → CCl<sub>4</sub> + 4 HClCorrect
Rationale

CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4HCl To balance equations, it is helpful to write down the number of atoms of each element present in both the reactants and products. Change the coefficients of the reactants and products until the same number of atoms of each element is present on both sides of the reaction arrow. CH4 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl C: 1 C: 1 H: 4 H: 1 Cl: 2 Cl: 5 CH4 + Cl2 → CCl4 + 4 HCl C: 1 C: 1 H: 4 H: 4 Cl: 2 Cl: 5 CH4 + 4 Cl2 → CCl4 + 4 HCl C: 1 C: 1 H: 4 H: 4 Cl: 8 Cl: 8 Carbon (C): 1 carbon atom on both sides → balanced. Hydrogen (H): Left side: 4 H atoms from CH₄. Right side: Each HCl contains 1 H, so need 4 HCl to balance. Chlorine (Cl): Right side: 4 Cl in CCl₄ + 4 Cl in 4 HCl = 8 Cl atoms total. Cl₂ molecule contains 2 Cl atoms → need 4 Cl₂ to get 8 Cl atoms.

Source recency: 2026

The generation of tension in a muscle is called __________.

Accuracy reviewed
  • aContractionCorrect
  • bRelaxation
  • cSignaling
  • dModulation
Rationale

Contraction The generation of tension in a muscle occurs during contraction, where muscle fibers shorten and generate force. This process involves the sliding of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle fibers. Relaxation refers to the process where a muscle returns to its resting state after contraction, not the generation of tension. Signaling refers to the transmission of electrical impulses (action potentials) that trigger muscle contraction, but it is not the process of generating tension itself. Modulation refers to the adjustment or regulation of muscle activity, not the direct generation of tension.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its function?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aMouth- mechanical digestionCorrect
  • bStomach- absorption of nutrients
  • cSmall intestine- formation of feces
  • dColon- formation of chyme
Rationale

Mouth-mechanical digestion. Mouth, mechanical digestion: The mouth is the site where mechanical digestion begins. The teeth and tongue work to break down food into smaller pieces, which is further mixed with saliva to form a bolus for swallowing. Colon, formation of chyme is incorrect, because the colon (large intestine) does not form chyme. Chyme is the semi-digested, partially liquid food formed in the stomach and passed into the small intestine. The colon primarily absorbs water and electrolytes and forms feces. Small intestine, formation of feces is incorrect, because the small intestine is responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the formation of feces. Feces are formed in the colon after water is absorbed from the undigested material. Stomach, absorption of nutrients is incorrect, because the stomach’s primary role is to break down food using gastric juices and enzymes, forming chyme. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine, not the stomach. The stomach only absorbs a few substances, such as alcohol and some medications. Image source: Anatomy Physiology, Connexions Web site.

Source recency: 2026

The respiratory system is composed of organs that facilitate gas exchange between the blood and the external environment. Which of the following describes the group of organs that function during gas exchange?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aOrganelle
  • bOrgan
  • cTissue
  • dOrgan SystemCorrect
Rationale

Organ system A group of organs that work together to perform several related functions is an organ system. Organelle refers to a specialized structure within a cell that performs a specific function necessary for the cell’s survival and operation. Organelles are often enclosed by membranes, which separate their internal environment from the rest of the cell, allowing them to carry out their roles efficiently. Tissues are a collection of specialized cells that perform a specific functions (e.g. protection, support, nerve conduction and movement). Organ refers to a group of tissues that has a specialized function. Below is a model representing the hierarchy of the structure of the human body:

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following is the process by which gametes divide and produce half the number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aFertilization
  • bMeiosisCorrect
  • cGametes
  • dZygote
Rationale

Meiosis Meiosis is the process by which gametes (sperm and ova) are formed. During meiosis, a diploid cell (containing a full set of chromosomes) divides twice to produce four haploid cells, each with half the number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell. This ensures that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote has the correct diploid number of chromosomes. Fertilization: This is the process in which a sperm and an ovum fuse to form a zygote, restoring the diploid chromosome number. Gametes: These are the cells (sperm in males and ova in females) that result from meiosis, but this term does not describe the process of their formation. Zygote: This is the single-cell result of the fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization. It is diploid and will undergo mitosis to develop into a multicellular organism.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between compact bone and spongy bone?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aCompact bone has trabeculae that support the bone marrow
  • bCompact bone is located more interior than spongy bone
  • cSpongy bone has more osteons than compact bone
  • dSpongy bone is lighter than compact boneCorrect
Rationale

Spongy bone is lighter than compact bone Spongy bone has a porous structure with spaces that reduce its weight while still providing structural support. This lighter structure is essential for reducing the overall weight of the skeleton. Spongy bone has more osteons than compact bone: Compact bone contains more osteons, which are the structural units arranged in dense, concentric circles. Spongy bone has trabeculae instead of osteons. Compact bone has trabeculae that support the bone marrow: Trabeculae are found in spongy bone, not compact bone, and they support bone marrow. Compact bone is located more interior than spongy bone: Compact bone is typically located on the exterior of bones, forming the dense outer layer, while spongy bone is located interiorly, particularly in the ends of long bones and in flat bones.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following correctly describes anatomical position?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aProne, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly
  • bSupine, arms at sides, palms facing posteriorly
  • cUpright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorlyCorrect
  • dSeated, arms at sides, palms facing posteriorly
Rationale

Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly Anatomical position is described as standing erect, arms at sides, face and palms are facing anteriorly (facing to the front). The other options do not depict the anatomical position correctly. This is why they are all in You may use the diagram below as a visual reference for anatomical position.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following is a substance that the kidneys remove from the blood during filtration?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aOxygen
  • bCarbon Dioxide
  • cRed Blood Cells
  • dSaltsCorrect
Rationale

Salts Salts (electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and chloride) are filtered out of the blood by the kidneys during the process of filtration in the glomerulus. The kidneys regulate the balance of these salts in the body by reabsorbing what is needed and excreting excess amounts in the urine. Oxygen: Is not removed by the kidneys; it is transported by red blood cells to tissues and used for cellular respiration. Carbon Dioxide: Is primarily removed from the blood by the lungs, not the kidneys. Red Blood Cells: Are too large to pass through the filtration membrane in the glomerulus and remain in the blood. Their presence in urine indicates a pathological condition (e.g., hematuria).

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following does not describe the dermis?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aThe thickest layer of the skin
  • bA vascular layer of the skin
  • cThe layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are foundCorrect
  • dThe layer of the skin that contains the network of capillaries necessary for thermoregulation
Rationale

The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found: Melanin is produced by melanocytes, which are located in the basal layer of the epidermis, not the dermis. A vascular layer of the skin: The dermis is vascular, containing blood vessels that provide nutrients to the skin and help regulate temperature. The thickest layer of the skin: The dermis is the thickest layer, providing structural support and elasticity through collagen and elastin fibers. The layer of the skin that contains the network of capillaries necessary for thermoregulation: The dermis contains capillaries and blood vessels essential for heat regulation. Please see the diagram below as a visual reference for the anatomy of the skin referenced in the question above.

Source recency: 2026

T-lymphocytes mature and become functional in which of the following organs?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aBone marrow
  • bSpleen
  • cLymph nodes
  • dThymusCorrect
Rationale

Thymus T-lymphocytes (T-cells) originate in the bone marrow but mature and become functional in the thymus. The thymus is where T-cells undergo a selection process to ensure they can properly recognize foreign antigens and distinguish them from self-antigens. Once mature, they enter the bloodstream and lymphatic system to participate in immune responses. Lymph nodes: Sites where immune responses are initiated, and where T-cells and B-cells encounter pathogens. Bone marrow: The site of origin for both T-cells and B-cells, but it is not where T-cells mature. Spleen: Filters blood and helps in immune responses, but T-cells do not mature there.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following is not true about thermoregulation?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aContraction of arrector pili muscles facilitates vasodilation.Correct
  • bShivering generates heat through muscle contractions to warm the body.
  • cCutaneous vasodilation cools the body by allowing heat to be released through skin.
  • dCutaneous vasoconstriction warms the body by restricting blood flow in the skin.
Rationale

Contraction of arrector pili muscle facilitates vasodilation. Contraction of arrector pili muscles causes hair to stand upright (goosebumps) and does not facilitate vasodilation. This response is primarily related to cold or stress and has little effect on thermoregulation in humans. Shivering generates heat through muscle contractions to warm the body: Shivering is an involuntary response that generates heat by increasing muscle activity. Cutaneous vasodilation cools the body by allowing heat to be released through skin: In warm conditions, blood vessels in the skin dilate to release excess heat, cooling the body. Cutaneous vasoconstriction warms the body by restricting blood flow in the skin: In cold conditions, blood vessels in the skin constrict to conserve heat by reducing blood flow near the surface.

Source recency: 2026

Which of the following is not true about reproductive hormones?

Accuracy reviewed
  • aFSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
  • bLH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.Correct
  • cFSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) stimulates maturation of sperm and ovum.
  • dLH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone.
Rationale

LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland. LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, not the posterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary secretes both LH and FSH, which are critical for regulating reproductive processes. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland is true. FSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary and is involved in the development of follicles in the ovaries and the maturation of sperm in the testes. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) stimulates maturation of sperm and ovum is true. FSH promotes the maturation of ovarian follicles in females and supports spermatogenesis in males. LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone is true. In females, LH triggers ovulation and stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. In males, LH stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.

Source recency: 2026

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